Human Physiology/Appendix 1: answers to review questions

From Wikibooks, open books for an open world
Jump to navigation Jump to search
 Human Physiology 

HomeostasisCellsIntegumentaryNervousSensesMuscularBloodCardiovascularImmuneUrinaryRespiratoryGastrointestinalNutritionEndocrineReproduction (male)Reproduction (female)PregnancyGeneticsDevelopmentAnswers

This appendix does not provide answers to the review questions posted at the end of each chapter; it is a collection of questions provided at the end of each chapter.

Homeostasis[edit | edit source]

1. Meaning of Homeostasis:

A) contributor and provider
B) expanding
C) same or constant
D) receiver

2. What is the normal pH value for body fluid?

A) 7.15-7.2556
B) 7.35-7.45
C) 7.55- 7.65
D) 7.00-7.35
E) 6.5-7.5

3. An example of the urinary system working with the respiratory system to regulate blood pH would be

A) When you hold your breath the kidneys will remove CO2 from your blood
B) If you exercise a lot your urine will become more acidic
C) If you develop emphysema the kidneys will remove fewer bicarbonate ions from circulation
D) If you hyperventilate the kidneys will counteract the alkalinity by adding hydrogen ions into the blood stream
E) None of the above-the urinary system never works with the respiratory system

4. The urge to breathe comes in direct response to:

A) How long it has been since you last took a breath
B) The oxygen concentration of your surrounding environment
C) The buildup of nitrogen within your blood stream
D) The pH of your blood
E) The buildup of blood pressure that occurs when you don't breathe

5. In response to a bacterial infection my body's thermostat is raised. I start to shiver and produce more body heat. When my body temperature reaches 101 degrees, I stop shivering and my body temperature stops going up. This is an example of:

A) Negative feedback
B) A malfunctioning control system
C) Positive feedback
D) A negative impact

6. Which of the follow is an example of a positive feedback?

A) Shivering to warm up in a cold winter storm
B) A cruise control set on your car applies more gas when going up a hill
C) You sweat on a hot summer's day and the blood vessels in your skin vasodilate
D) You get cut and platelets form a clot. This in turn activates the fibrin clotting system and more blood forms clots

7. Where is the body's "thermostat" found?

A) Within the nervous system, in the Hypothalamus
B) Within the integumentary system, in the skin
C) Within the brain, in the corpus callosum
D) Within the Urinary system, in the kidneys

8. What system has little to contribute to the homeostasis of the organism?

A) Urinary System
B) Reproductive System
C) Respiratory System
D) Nervous System

Cell physiology[edit | edit source]

1. List 2 functions of the cell membrane:

Separates internal metabolic events from the external environment.
Controls the movement of materials into and out of the cell.

Questions 2 - 6 Match the following organelles with their function:

2. Mitochondria C

3. Vacuoles D

4. Cilia A

5. Smooth ER B

6. Golgi Apparatus E

7. The diffusion of H2O across a semi permeable or selectively permeable membrane is termed

A. Active transport
B. Diffusion
C. Osmosis
D. Endocytosis

8. Oxygen enters a cell via?

a. Diffusion
b. Filtration
c. Osmosis
d. Active transport

9. The term used to describe, "cell eating" is?

a. Exocytosis
b. Phagocytosis
c. Pinocytosis
d. Diffusion

10. Which of the following requires energy?

a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Active transport
d. Facilitated diffusion

11. Protein synthesis occurs at the

a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Within the nucleus
d. Ribosomes

12. Which of the following is not found in the cell membrane?

a. Cholesterol
b. Phospholipids
c. Proteins
d. Galactose
e. Nucleic Acids

13. What is a cell?

a. The largest living units within our bodies.
b. Enzymes that "eat" bacteria
c. Microscopic fundamental units of all living things.
d. All of the above.

Integumentary System[edit | edit source]

1. Name all of the parts of the integumentary system.

The integumentary system consists of the skin, the subcutaneous tissue below the skin, hair, nails, and assorted glands.

2. Name the cells that produce melanin and describe its function.

These are cells located in the bottom layer of the skin's epidermis and in the middle layer of the eye, the uvea. Through a process called
melanogenesis, these cells produce melanin, a pigment in the skin, eyes, and hair.

3. Name and describe the importance of the cutaneous senses.

The cutaneous senses are touch, pressure, heat, cold and pain. Their purpose is to provide the central nervous system with information about the external environment and its effect on the skin.

4. Explain how sweating helps maintain normal body temperature.

Eccrine sweat glands are coiled tubular glands derived from the outer layer of skin but extending into the inner layer. The sweat glands are
controlled by sympathetic cholinergic nerves which are controlled by a centre in the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus senses core
temperature directly, and also has input from temperature receptors in the skin and modifies the sweat output, along with other thermoregulatory processes.

5. Explain where on the body hair has important functions, and describe these functions.

Hair on the scalp provides insulation from cold for the head.
The hair of eyelashes and eyebrows helps keep dust and perspiration out of the eyes.
Hair in our nostrils helps keep dust out of the nasal cavities.
Any other hair on our bodies no longer serves a function, but is an evolutionary remnant.

6. What is a melanoma?

a. The outermost layer of skin
b. A type of nail disease
c. A malignant tumor that originates in melanocytes
d. The lower most layer of skin

The Nervous System[edit | edit source]

1. The junction between one neuron and the next, or between a neuron and an effector is called:

A ) A synapse
B ) A dendrite
C ) A neuotransmitter
D ) A ventricle
E ) None of the above

2. A fast excitatory synapses follows this order:

A ) (1) neurotransmitter released (2) diffused across the synaptic cleft to a receptor protein (3) binding of the transmitter opens pores in the ion channels and positive ions move in.
B ) (1) neurotransmitter released (2) diffused across the synaptic cleft to a receptor protein (3) binding of the transmitter opens pores in the ion channels and negative ions move in.
C ) (1) neurotransmitter released (2) diffused across the synaptic cleft to a receptor amino acid (3) binding of the transmitter opens pores in the ion channels and positive ions move in.
D ) (1) diffused across the synaptic cleft to a receptor protein (2) neurotransmitter released (3) binding of the transmitter opens pores in the ion channels and positive ions move in.
E ) None of the above

3. Resting potential is

A ) excess positive ions accumulate inside the plasma membrane
B ) excess negative ions accumulate inside the plasma membrane
C ) excess positive ions accumulate outside the plasma membrane
D ) both b & c
E ) both a & c

4. Sensory neurons have:

A ) A short dendrite and a long axon
B ) A short dendrite and a short axon
C ) A long dendrite and a short axon
D ) A long dendrite and a long axon
E ) Their axons and dendrites may be either long or short

5. ________blocks Acetylcholine receptor sites causing muscle relaxation.

A ) Novocain
B ) curare
C ) Nicotine
D ) Nerve gases

6. Transmission across a synapse is dependent on the release of _______?

A ) neurotransmitters
B ) synaptic vesicle
C ) neurons
D ) receptor proteins

7. Motor neurons take messages

A ) from the muscle fiber to the central nervous system
B ) away from the central nervous system to the central nervous system
C ) that are classified
D ) away from the central nervous system to muscle fiber

8. The medulla oblongata helps to regulate which of the following:

A ) Breathing
B ) Heartbeat
C ) Sneezing
D ) Vomiting
E ) All of the above

9. The nervous systems main components are what?

A ) The Synapses and Sprinal cord
B ) The neurons and the synapses
C ) The brain and the neurons
D )The brain and the spinal cord

10. Explain what LTP does to enhance communication between two neurons, on the postsynaptic end.

  • More receptors, such as AMPA receptors, are added and existing ones are sensitized via phosphorylation. Dendritic spine number and surface area is increased as well.

11. Explain what LTP does to enhance communication between two neurons, on the presynaptic end.

  • If the retrograde messenger theory is correct, presynaptic cells participate in the enhancement by increasing the probability of synaptic vesicle release. (Please remember the retrograde messenger is theoretical, I just thought it should be included here)

Senses[edit | edit source]

Critical Thinking: Vision[edit | edit source]

1. Explain why you are normally unaware of your blind spot.

  • Since your eyes are looking from different angles, they see each other's blind spot and your brain combines the two images.

2. Stare at a bright light for 10 seconds and then stare at a white sheet of paper. What do you observe and why?

  • You should observe a negative afterimage. This happens when the rod/cone (mostly cone) cells in your eye adapt to the stimulus and lose their sensitivity, leaving you with the negative of the color that was adapted to.

3. What is it that makes things "disappear" when you are staring at them at night, and how do you make them reappear?

  • There are no rods in the fovea, so little light is picked up when you stare directly at the object. To make it reappear, just don't look right at it.

4. Name what rods are sensitive to and also what cones are sensitive to.

  • Rods are more sensitive to lower light levels, but lack color-seeing ability. Cones work in brighter light and perceive color (blue, green, red).

5. Explain how Deadly Nightshade works

  • Normally, the parasympathetic nervous system constricts the pupil as needed with acetylcholine. The atropine in nightshade is a competitive agonist on the same receptor as the one that accepts acetylcholine. Basically: the atropine takes up all of the places for acetylcholine to bind, and the pupils dilate.

Critical Thinking: Hearing[edit | edit source]

1. Explain how the pitch of sound is coded. How is the loudness of sound coded?

2. What do the three semicircular canals in the inner ear enable us to do? How do they accomplish this?

  • Each of the three fluid filled canals is on a different plane. Movement is detected on these planes when the fluid inside moves around, vibrating cilia on the cupula which sends it on to the brain.

3. What does the eustachian tube do? What does the eustachian tube have to do with a middle ear infection?

  • The eustachian tube is to keep pressure in the middle ear the same as atmospheric pressure. If the tube is blocked, the gases in the ear will diffuse back into the surrounding tissues and a vacuum will be made. Eventually, this will pull fluid in and if it becomes infected... You have an ear infection.

4. What is the advantage of having a oval window?

Sound transducted from air to a more dense medium (endolymph, in scala media where the organ of cortis is placed) would be partially reflected and greatly weakened if not for the ossicular bones that transfer the vibration from membrana tymphani trough malleus, incus and stapes to the foramen ovale where it puts the liquids of cochlea in motion. This motion is then transfered trough membrana vestibularis to membrana basilaris, which in turn puts the haircells in motion. This leads to a bending of the stereocills, fastened to membrana tectori, and as a result; a depolarization of the afferent sensory fibre receptor of n. cochlearis through release of glutamate. The loss of energy in transduction is partially re-gained by the size of membr. tympani compared to the size of foramen ovale and the rotation of the ossicular bones.

Review Questions[edit | edit source]

1. Located under the hardest bone in the body, these control not only hearing but also a sense of gravity and motion:

A) The incus and the stapes
B) The pinna and the ear drum
C) the vestibular nerve and the semi circular canals
D) The eustachian tube and the stapes

2. The retina does the following;

A) allows vision in light and dark, using cones and rods
B) Gives depth perception using binocular vision
C) Contains the ciliary muscles that control the shape of the lens
D) Protects and supports the shape of the eye

3. This is the reason that we stop feeling the clothes that we are wearing

A) Merkel’s Discs are somewhat rigid in structure, and the fact that they are not encapsulated, causes them to have a sustained response
B) Meissner’s corpuscle are rapidly adapting or phasic, the action potentials generated quickly decrease and eventually cease
C) Ruffini corpuscles is a class of slowly adapting mechanoreceptor
D) Pacinian corpuscles allow sodium ions to influx in, creating a receptor potential

4. When eating a piece of candy, I will use the following to sense that it is sweet

A) Fungiform papillae
B) Filiform papillae
C) Foliate papillae
D) Circumvallate papillae
E) All of the above

5. If I have a cold, food may not taste as good to me because

A) The nerve fibrils are not functioning properly
B) My food will taste the same; taste and smell have nothing in common
C) Papilla become blocked by mucus and are unable to function
D) Olfaction, taste and trigeminal receptors together contribute to the flavor of my food

6. Walking from a well lit room into a dark room would cause the following to occur

A) The sclera in the eye to open and eventually allow me to see in the dark
B) The extraocular muscles in the eye to open and eventually allow me to see in the dark
C) The cones in the eye to open and eventually allow me to see in the dark
D) the rods in the eye to open and eventually allow me to see in the dark

7. Hair cells in the ear

A) Are the actual sensory receptors that will fire off action potentials when they are disturbed
B) Show a graded response, instead of the spikes typical of other neurons
C) “Rub” against the overhanging tectorial membrane
D) All of the above

8. Eyesight decreases with age because

A) Older eyes receive much less light at the retina
B) There are numerous eye diseases that can affect an older eye
C) The extent to which the pupil dilates decreases with age
D) all of the above

9. Teens walking off of a roller coaster in Magic Mountain seem to have vertigo because

A) The fluid in the auricle has not stopped moving causing conflicts with the information coming from your vision
B) the fluid in the cochlea has not stopped moving causing conflicts with the information coming from your vision
C) The fluid in the tympanic membrane has not stopped moving causing conflicts with the information coming from your vision
D) The fluid in the stirrup has not stopped moving causing conflicts with the information coming from your vision

10. These receptors react to foods treated with monosodium glutamate

A) Salt
B) Sour
C) Bitter
D) Sweet
E) Umami

The Muscular System[edit | edit source]

1. Smooth Muscle is

A) Voluntary and Spindle Shaped
B) Voluntary and Striated
C) Involuntary and Spindle Shaped
D) Involuntary and Striated

2. Skeletal Muscle is

A) Voluntary and Spindle Shaped
B)Voluntary and Striated
C) Involuntary and Spindle Shaped
D) Involuntary and Striated

3. Cardiac Muscle is

A) Voluntary and Spindle Shaped
B) Voluntary and Striated
C) Involuntary and Spindle Shaped
D) Involuntary and Striated

4. Which type of muscle cell is multinucleated?

A) Cardiac
B) Smooth
C) Skeletal
D) All of the Above

5. What is an example of a smooth muscle?

A) Masseter (Face)
B) Bladder
C) Heart
D) Pronator Teres (Forearm)
E) Rectus Abdominis (belly)

6. Each myosin filament is surrounded by ____ actin filaments.

A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight
E) Seven

7. The muscular system is contoled by what system?

A) The cardiovascular system
B) The integumentary System
C) The Nervous system
D) None of the above

8. How many types of muscle are there?

A) Two
B) Three (cardiac, smooth and skeletal)
C) Four
D) Five

Blood Physiology[edit | edit source]

1. Taking aspirin every day can reduce the risk of heart disease because:

A) it is a powerful vasodilator
B) it blocks pain receptors in heart tissue
C) it stops ventricular fibrillation
D) it loosens plaque on arterial walls

:E) it prevents platelet clumping

2. A hematocrit measures percentage of:

A) White blood cells
B) Plasma
C) Platelets

:D) Red blood cells

3. Fred's blood type is O- and Ginger's is B+. Fred and Ginger have a son who is AB+. What do you conclude?

A) If they have a second child Ginger needs to have RhoGam shot
B) There is no risk to a second child, unless it has a negative blood type
C) If the child needs a blood transfusion Fred could provide it safely, but not Ginger

:D) Fred is not the boy’s father

4. Which blood component plays the largest role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of blood?

:A) albumin

B) carbon dioxide
C) white blood cells
D) fibrinogen
E) globulins

5. If you hold your breath for one minute

A) The kidneys will increase sodium ion reabsorption

:B) Hydrogen-ion concentration in the blood will increase

C) Your heart rate will greatly slow
D) Hemoglobin will bind to oxygen more strongly

6. Most of the carbon dioxide produced by tissues is transported to the lungs as:

A) Small gas bubbles in the plasma
B) Gas bound to hemoglobin in the red blood cells

:C) Bicarbonate ions in the plasma

D) Gas bound to white blood cells and albumin
E) Gas transported through the lymphatic system

7. To prevent blood loss after a tissue injury, blood vessels first

A) Form a platelet plug
B) Form a clot
C) Initiate the coagulation cascade

:D) Constrict and form barriers

8. You take a blood sample from a male cyclist at the end of a long race. The hematocrit is 60%. The most likely conclusion is:

A) This is within normal range for most adult males
B) This cyclist is anemic
C) This low of a hematocrit could indicate liver damage or leukemia

:D) The cyclist is dehydrated

E) The cyclist has been taking pharmaceutical erythropoietin

9. In a normal blood sample, which of the following cells will be the most abundant?

:A) Neutrophils

B) Basophils
C) Eosinophils
D) Monocytes
E) Lymphocytes

10. A bag of donated blood does not clot because

A) There is not enough oxygen
B) It cannot dry out
C) It is kept refrigerated
D) There is no free calcium
E) All of the above

The cardiovascular system[edit | edit source]

1. This conducts electricity like nerves

A) Epicardium
B) Pericardium
C) Myocardium
D) Subvalaular Apparatus
E) None of these, only nerves conduct electricity

2. This carries the most blood at any given time in the body

A) Veins
B) Capillary Beds
C) Veins
D) Aorta
E) Vena Cava

3. The following contract together to pump blood

A) Right atrium with the right ventricle and left atrium with the left ventricle
B) Right atrium with left atrium and right ventricles with left ventricle
C) Tricuspid valve and mitral valve
D) Aorta and pulmonary artery
E) Aorta, pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein

4. This is the pacemaker of the heart

A) AV node
B) Purkinje fibers
C) AV Bundle
D) SA node
E) None of these, a pacemaker is surgically inserted

5. When reading an EKG, this letter shows the depolarization from the AV node down to the AV bundle

A) S
B) P
C) U
D) T
E) Q

6. The T wave in an EKG shows

A) Resting potential
B) Atrial depolarization
C) SA node excitation
D) Ventricle repolarization
E) Purkinje Excitation

7. Blood pressure is the measure of

A) Pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of the blood vessels
B) Pressure exerted by the blood on the arteries
C) Pressure exerted by the blood on the veins
D) Pressure exerted by the blood on the aorta

8. Systolic Pressure is

A) An average of 120 mm Hg
B) Lowers steadily during ventricle systole
C) The highest when blood is being pumped out of the left ventricle into the aorta
D) An average of 80 mm Hg
E) Both A and C
F) Both B and D

9. The heart has how many chambers?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four (two ventricles and two atria)
E) Five

10. End diastolic volume in human


The Immune System[edit | edit source]

1-When neutrophils and macrophages squeeze out of capillaries to fight off infection it is called:

A) phagocytosis
B) hemolysis
C) interleukin
D) diapedesis
E) folliculitis

2-During a great battle between your WBC's and an aggressive microbe, an inflammatory response has been initiated. Reddness and edema has kicked in what else does the body do to protect itself?

A) Histamine cause vasodilation
B) Hypothalmus raises the thermostat
C) Neutrophils engulf and destroy the microbe
D) Living and dead WBC and bacteria accumulate
E) All of the above

3-Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?

A) inflammatory response
B) phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils
C) interferon
D) T cell and B cell responses
E) anatomical barriers in the body

4-An additional chemical defense found in tears and saliva?

A) T lymphocytes
B) saline
C) lysozyme

5-Which of the following does complement protein perform

A) They cause antibody release
B) T cell development
C) The release if histamine
D) Promotes tissue repair
E) Mast cell degranulation

6-Which substance induces fever?

A) Pyrogen
B) Pus
C) Monocytes
D) Edema
E) Interferon

7-Major function(s) of the lymphatic system is/are?

A) provide route for return of extracellular fluid
B) act as drain off for inflammatory response
C) render surveillance, recognition , and protection against foreign materials via lymphocytes, phagocytes, and antibodies.
D) a and c
E) all of the above

8-An antigen is:

A) a chemical messenger that is released by virus infected cells
B) a lymphocyte responsible for cell-mediated immunity
C) something that coats the inside of lungs, causing infection
D) a protein or other molecule that is recognized as non-self
E) a thick yellow-white fluid

9-A foreign substance, usually a protein, that stimulates the immune system to react, such as by producing antibodies is a ______________.

A) allergen
B) antigen
C) histamine
D) mast cell
E) interferon

10-When a macrophage ingests an invading bacteria and takes the antigen to a lymph node, what happens next?

A) the macrophage will present it to the first B-cell it encounters, and the B-cell will in turn change its surface receptors to match the antigen
B) a B-cell will only become activated if it already has a match for the antigen
C) a matching B-cell will become activated into a cytotoxic T-cell
D) the cells of the lymph node will release histamine
E) the lymph node will increase production of neutrophils

11-What is the most common portal of entry for diseases, into the body?

A) Respiratory system
B) Endocrine system
C) Hematacrit system
D) Any opening into the body.

12-This gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes:

A) lymph nodes
B) thymus
C) spleen
E) tonsils

13-Which of the following is not a mechanical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?

A) Layers of cells
B) Tears
C) Saliva
D) Lysozyme
E) None of the above

14-Where is the site of maturation for a B cell?

A) thymus
B) bone marrow
C) pancreas
D) cortex

15-Nonspecific resistance is

A) The body's ability to ward off diseases.
B) The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen.
C) The body's defense against a particular pathogen.
D) The lack of resistance.
E) None of the above.

16-What is an Antibody?

A) An antimicrobial substance applied to a living tissue to prevent infection.
B) Programmed cell death
C) A protein generated by the immune system in response to a foreign substance.
D) A chemical involved in inflammation.

The Urinary System[edit | edit source]

1. While reading a blood test I notice a high level of creatinine, I could assume from this that

A) There is a possibility of a UTI
B) There is a possibility of diabetes
C) There is a possibility of kidney failure
D) There is nothing wrong, this is normal

2. Direct control of water excretion in the kidneys is controlled by

A) Anti-diuretic hormone
B) The medulla oblongata
C) Blood plasma
D) Sodium amounts in the blood
E) Cells

3. Nephrons

A) Eliminate wastes from the body
B) Regulate blood volume and pressure
C) Control levels of electrolytes and metabolites
D) Regulate blood pH
E) All of the above

4. If I am dehydrated, my body will increase

C) Diluted urine

5. Which part of the nephron removes water, ions and nutrients from the blood?

A ) vasa recta
B ) loop of henle
C ) proximal convuluted tubule
D ) peritubular capillaries
E ) glomerulus

6.Kidneys have a direct effect on which of the following

A ) Blood pressure
B ) How much water a person excretes
C ) Total blood volume
D ) pH
E ) all of the above

7. Why do substances in the glomerulus enter the Bowman's capsule?

A ) the magnetic charge of the Bowman's capsule attracts the substances
B ) the substances are actively transported into the Bowman's capsule
C ) blood pressure of the glomerulus is so great that most substances in blood move into capsule
D ) little green men force it in with their ray guns

8. What happens in tubular excretion?

A ) urine bonds are formed between the wastes
B ) wastes are diffused from the tubule
C ) wastes move into the distal convoluted tubule from the blood
D ) blood pressure forces wastes away from the kidney

9. The countercurrent exchange system includes_________and_________.

A ) glomerulus and macula densa
B ) proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule
C ) loop of Henle and collecting tubule
D ) afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole
E ) ureters and bladder

10. The function of the loop of the nephron in the process of urine formation is:

A ) reabsorption of water
B ) production of filtrate
C ) reabsorption of solutes
D ) secretion of solutes

==The respiratory system== 1. This is total lung capacity :*A) Vital capacity :B) Tidal volume :C) Expiratory reserve volume :D) Inspiratory reserve volume 2. Involuntary breathing is caused by the

A) Pituitary gland :B) Exocrine gland :C) Cerebral cortex :*D) Medulla oblongata :E) Endocrine gland 3. Carbon monoxide is dangerous because :*A) It binds strongly to hemoglobin, making it unavailable to oxygen :B) It binds strongly to plasma, making it unavailable to carbon dioxide :C) It raises the blood’s pH level, causing a person to hyperventilate :D) Carbon monoxide is not harmfull, we have it in our bodies normally 4. Clubbing of the fingers could be a sign of :A) A viral infection :B) An upper respiratory infection :*C) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease :D) Nothing, it’s inherited 5. The need to breathe is caused by :*A) A decrease in blood pH :B) An increase in blood pH :C) A decrease in blood oxygen levels :D) A decrease in carbon dioxide levels 6. A person more susceptible to Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease would be :A) A long time smoker :B) A long time fireman :C) A child whose parents smoke :D) A farmer that deals with pesticides :*E) All of the above

7. The exchange of gases between the blood within the capillaries and tissue fluid surrounding the body's cells is called? :A) external respiration :B) cell metabolism :C) cellular respiration :*D) internal respiration 8. The medulla oblongata and pons regulate and measure what?

A) The pH level of your blood
B) Your body temperature
C) The amount of O2 in your blood
D) The amount of air in your lungs

9. About how many alveoli are there in the lungs?

A) 300 million
B) 300 billion
C) 300 trillion
D) 300 thousand
E) None of the above 10. In relation to atmospheric pressure, intrapleural pressure is: :A) more pressurized :*B) less pressurized :C) about the same

11. Hemoglobin gives up oxygen when the environment is more _______. :*A)Acidic :B)Alkaline :C)Icey :D)Open 12. The sac that surrounds your lungs is called what? :A) Diaphragm :*B) Visceral Pleura :C) Pulmonary Thorax :D) None of the above 13. In what cellular organelle is the oxygen actually consumed and carbon dioxide produced?

A) Nucleus
B) Cytoplasm
C) Microfilaments
D) Mitochondria

14. Which of these are protective reflexes?

A) Hiccuping
B) Sobbing
C) Sneezing
D) Itching

15. Where does gas exchange take place?

A) Bronchioles
B) Conchae
C) Pulmonary Capillaries
D) Roots of the Lungs

16. When you hyperventalate you release large amounts of CO2 and drop your O2 levels. As a result you loose the urge to breathe and may pass out. This is called what? :A) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease :B) Asthma :*C) Shallow water black out :D) Pulmonary Fibrosis 17. Acidosis is when you blood pH is below ? :A) 7.05 :B) 7.15 :C) 7.25 :*D) 7.35 18. When we exhale deeply some air is still left in the lungs, this air left is called? :A) Tidal Volume :B) Vital Capacity :C) Expiratory reseerve Volume :*D) Residual Volume

The gastrointestinal system[edit | edit source]

1. This is released in the duodenum in response to acidic chyme

A) Cholecystokinin
B) Gastrin
C) Secretin
D) Peptide

2. In the GI tract, this layer is responsible for absorption and secretions

A) Mucosa
B) Sub mucosa
C) Muscularis
D) Serosa

3. This digestive enzyme is produced in the salivary glands and the pancreas

A) Maltase
B) Amylase
C) Pepsin
D) Nuclease
E) Lipase

4. This keeps the chyme in the stomach until it reaches the right consistency to pass into the small intestine

A) Esophageal sphincter
B) Intrinsic sphincter
C) Cardiac sphincter
D) pyloric sphincter

5. The site where most of the chemical and mechanical digestion is carried out

A) Pylorus
B) Fundus
C) Stomach
D) Large intestine
E) Small intestine

6. Parietal cells secret

A) Serotonin
B) Mucus
C) Pepsinogen
D) Hydrochloric Acid
E) Gastrin

7. The cells at the base of fundic or oxyntic glands

A) Chief cells
B) G cells
C) Argentaffin cells
D) Goblet cells
E) Parietal cells

8. The movement and the flow of chemicals into the stomach is controlled by

A) Nervous system
B) Pancreas
C) Various digestive system hormones
D) Liver
E) Both the nervous system and various digestive system hormones

9. The function of the Ileum is

A) Absorb nutrients
B) Absorb vitamin B12 and bile salts
C) To introduce bile and pancreatic juices
D) Absorb alcohol and aspirin

10. The liver does this

A) Glycogen storage
B) Plasma protein synthesis
C) Bile production
D) Drug detoxification
E) All of the above

11. How many layers is the G.I tract composed of?

C)Four (mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa)

12. Name the 7 accessory organs.

  • Salivary glands, parotid gland, submandibular gland, sublingual gland, tongue, teeth, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, vermiform appendix

Nutrition[edit | edit source]

1. Nonessential amino acids

A) are stored in the body
B) are only needed occasionally
C) can be produced in the body
D) can be taken in supplements

2. Micronutrients include

A) minerals and vitamins
B) lipids and fatty acids
C) amino acids and proteins
D) vitamins and minerals

3. The body requires amino acids to

A) produce new red blood cells
B) produce new protein
C) replace damaged red blood cells
D) replace damaged protein
E) A and C
F) B and D

4. The function of lipids

A) store energy
B) organ protection
C) temperature regulator
D) emulsifiers
E) all of the above

5. This vitamin is a vital component of the reproductive process and lowers the risk of getting cancer

A) B12
B) Folic Acid
C) Niacin
D) Thiamine
E) Retinol

6. This vitamin is needed to make red blood cells

A) B1
B) B2
C) B6
D) B12

7. This participates in the synthesis of hemoglobin and melanin

A) Copper
B) Chloride
C) Calcium
D) Iron
E) Iodine

8. I go to visit my grandmother and see that she has multiple bruises- from this I may assume that

A) she has a vitamin A deficiency
B) she is old and just clumsy
C) she has a vitamin K deficiency
D) she has scurvy
E) she has rickets

9. As a pirate I may get scurvy because

A) I am not getting enough vegetables on the ship
B) I am not getting enough fruit on the ship
C) I am eating too much fish on the ship
D) I am getting too much sun on the ship
E) I am drinking too much rum on the ship

10. I am taking anticoagulant medication and it doesn’t seem to be working, this could be because

A) I have too much vitamin A
B) I have too much B12
C) I have too much sodium
D) I have too much vitamin E
E) I have too much vitamin K

11. Which of these are fat soluable?

A) Vitamin K
B) Vitamin E
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin A
e) All of the above

The Endocrine System[edit | edit source]

1. My child just fell and was hurt, the anxious feeling that I feel is caused by

A) glucagon
B) insulin
C) epinephrine
D) adrenocorticotropic
E) None of these

2. All of Bob’s life he has had to take insulin shots, this is caused because

A) his beta cells don’t function correctly
B) his alpha cells don’t function correctly
C) his DA hormone isn’t functioning correctly
D) his GHRH hormone isn’t functioning correctly

3. The reason iodine is in salt is

A) to prevent diabetes
B) to prevent simple goiters
C) to prevent addison’s disease
D) to prevent cushing syndrome

4. All hormones react to a negative feedback except

A) progesterone
B) estrogen
C) prolactin
D) oxytocin
E) none of these

5. If I have a high blood calcium level it may be due to

A) calcitonin
B) parathyroid
C) glucocorticoids
D) glucagon

6. Hormones that are lipids that are synthesized from cholesterol

A) protien
B) amino acid-derived
C) polypeptide
D) steroids
E) eicosanoids

7. This type of hormone must bind to a receptor protein on the plasma membrane of the cell

A) water soluble
B) lipid soluble
C) steroid
D) polypeptide
E) a and d
F) b and c

8. Endocrine glands release hormones in response to

A) Hormones from other endocrine glands
B) Chemical characteristics of the blood
C) Neural stimulation
D) All of the above

9. The anterior pituitary secretes

A) oxytocin
B) endorphins

10. Chief cells produce

A) epinephrine
B) glucagon
C) insulin
D) mineralocoticoids
E) parathyroid hormone

11. Name the eight major endocrine glands.

  • Pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, pancreas, testes/ovaries, adrenal gland, pineal gland

12. Name the four major groups hormones can be chemically classified into.

  • Amino acid-derived, polypeptides/proteins, steroids, eicosanoids, glycoprotein, amines

The male reproductive system[edit | edit source]

1. This is needed to make immature sperm mature


2. These become engorged with blood in an erection

A) corpora cavernosa
B) fibrous envelope
C) septum pectiniforme
D) integument
E) dorsal veins

3. The difference between male and female sperm

A) female sperm have a larger head
B) male sperm are lighter
C) female sperm are faster
D) male sperm are weaker
E) A and B
F) C and D

4. The entire process of sperm formation takes about

A) 5-6 weeks
B) 7-8 weeks
C) 3-4 weeks
D) 9-10 weeks

5. Hyper Activation occurs when

A) the sperm are introduced into the urethra
B) the sperm are ejaculated into the vaginal canal
C) the sperm begin to interact with the fertilizing layer of an egg cell
D) the sperm reach the cervix

6. It takes sperm ___________ weeks to travel through the epididymis

A) 6-8
B) 1-3
C) 2-4
D) 4-6

7. While singing in the choir, Ben suddenly notices his voice is constantly cracking. This is caused by

A) androgens
D) Ben’s inability to sing

8. In sexual homology, the glans penis in the male is equal to _____________ in the female

A) clitoral hood
B) clitoris
C) clitoral glans
D) clitoral crura

9. In sexual homology, the ___________ in the male is equal to the fallopian tubes in the female

A) testis
B) appendix testis
C) vas deferens
D) seminal vesicle
E) efferent ducts

10. Joe has a bulge in the groin area that seems to get worse when he lifts things. This most likely is

A) epididymitis
B) testicular cancer
C) varicocele
D) hydrocele
E) inguinal hernia

The female reproductive system[edit | edit source]

1. In homology, the __________ in the female is equal to the penis in the male

A) labia majora
B) clitoral hood
C) clitoris
D) labia minora
E) none of the above

2. This contains some of the strongest muscles in the human body

A) uterus
B) clitoris
C) cervix
D) labia majora

3. This protects the vaginal and urethral openings

A) labia majora
B) labia minora
C) clitoris
D) urethra

4. Sally has noticed that her cervical mucus has changed and now resembles egg whites- from this Sally could assume

A) her period will begin soon
B) nothing, this is a normal occurrence
C) she has a yeast infection
D) she is ovulating

5. Debbie recently went to the OBGYN and was diagnosed with PCOD (polycystic ovary syndrome) because of this she has

A) nothing, its normal in women
B) antisperm antibodies
C) an overproduction of LH
D) leaking of milk from her mammary glands
E) problems becoming pregnant

6. Angie went to the doctor because she has had pain in her leg recently- this could be caused by

A) ovulation pain
B) her period that will be starting tomorrow
C) premenstrual syndrome
D) a blood clot resulting from her birth control pill

7. Sue recently started her period and has noticed that they are very heavy and painful, and that they are inconsistent in their timing. One explanation could be

A) endometriosis
B) ovarian cancer
C) candidasis
D) toxic shock syndrome
E) amenorrhea

8. Mary is getting married and is not ready to become a mother- she chooses this birth control because of its high effectiveness

A) natural family planning
B) a diaphragm
C) contraceptive injections
D) a spermicide foam

9. The release of LH in woman causes

A) menstration
B) ovulation
C) increase of endometrial lining
D) decrease of endometrial lining
E) nothing LH only does something in the male reproductive system

10. When the ovaries stop producing estrogen, this occurs

A) ovulation
B) implantation
C) premenstrual syndrome
D) menopause

11. Infertility affects what percentage of couples?

A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%

12. What is the only 100% effective form of birth control?

A) Tubal ligation
C) Natural family planning
D) Abstinence

Pregnancy and birth[edit | edit source]

1. Is at this stage that an egg implants in the uterine lining

A) morula
B) zygote
C) blastocyst
D) embryoblast

2. Which part of the embryoblast will become the central nervous system in development

A) ectoderm
B) mesoderm
C) endoderm

3. This hormone is only produced in the human body when a woman is pregnant

A) estrogen
C) progesterone

4. By this week of pregnancy, the beginnings of all major organs have formed

A) 4
B) 7
C) 5
D) 6
E) 8

5. Stem cells are found in the embryoblast and use of them is very controversial, another place to find stem cells that are usable to treat leukemia and other disorders is the

A) morula
B) chorion
C) amnion
D) amniotic fluid
E) umbilical cord

6. The cervix dilates on an average of ______ per hour in the active phase of labor

A) 2 mm
B) 2 cm
C) 1mm
D) 1 cm

7. The contractions of the uterus are stimulated by the release of

A) oytocin
D) prolactin
E) estrogen

8. A sign of pre-labor is

A) irregular contractions
B) pain in the front only
C) loss of the mucus plug
D) contractions stop during rest

9. This is the most common complication of pregnancy

A) preclampcia
B) miscarriage
C) smoking
D) Rh factor
E) teratogens

10. Sue decides to breastfeed because she has been told that colostrum contains

A) high protein
B) low fat
C) immunoglobulins
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

11. What is the first milk, after birth, called?

A) thrush
B) mastitis
C) colostrum
D) milk let down

Genetics and inheritance[edit | edit source]

1. DNA is found on

A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) chromosomes
D) cytoplasm

2. Even though each cell has identical copies of all of the same genes, different cells __________ or ___________ different genes

A) express, repress
B) genotype, phenotype
C) dominate, recessive

3. In diploid organisms, a dominant allele on one chromosome will

A) show the expression of a recessive allele
B) mask the expression of a recessive allele
C) show that there are dominant alleles on both chromosomes
D) none of the above

4. Transcription occurs in the

A) cytoplasm
B) gogli apparatus
C) mitochondria
D) nucleus

5. This is the start codon and is found at the beginning of each mRNA


6. Sara was born with cystic fibrosis, from this we could assume that

A) all of her siblings also have cystic fibrosis
B) only her dad is a carrier
C) only her mom is a carrier
D) both of her parents are carriers

7. Jesse was born with a flattened face, almond eyes and less muscle tone; it could be assumed that he has

A) a chromosome abnormality on chromosome 21
B) a chromosome abnormality on chromosome 19
C) a chromosome abnormality on chromosome 20
D) a chromosome abnormality on chromosome 22
E) No chromosome abnormality, these are his inherited traits

8. The most common inherited disease is

A) hemochromatosis
B) cystic fibrosis
C) sickle cell anemia
D) hemophilia
E) all of the above

9. Being a carrier of sickle cell anemia means that the person will

A) also be a carrier of hemophilia
B) be resistant to malaria
C) have children that all have sickle cell anemia
D) have children that all have malaria
E) none of the above

10. Hemophilia is

A) a Y linked disease
B) an XY linked disease
C) an X linked disease

Development: birth through death[edit | edit source]

1. Growth is the most rapid in

A) puberty
B) childhood
C) infancy
D) adulthood
E) Growth is always the same

2. This hormone stimulates puberty


3. Compared to girls' early growth spurt, growth __________in boys and __________

A) is quicker, lasts longer
B) accelerates more slowly, lasts longer
C) is slower, shorter
D) None of the above

4. This quality symbolizes adulthood in most cultures

A) stability
B) method/tact
C) endurance
D) objectivity
E) all of the above

5. Susie has a very hard time keeping friends, according to Maslow, this could be because

A) as a child she had a supportive family
B) she likes to help solve the problems of others
C) as a teenager her self-esteem was low
D) as a baby she wasn’t breastfed
E) as a child she lived in an environment that never made her feel safe

6. According to Maslow, in order for me to reach my full potential of self-actualization I must first

A) feel safe
B) gain self-esteem
C) have friendship
D) have food
E) all of the above

7. Humans are one of the _________ developing species in the animal kingdom

A) slowest
B) quickest
C) average
D) none of the above

8. Jenny thinks that she might be going through menopause, a symptom of this is

A) bleeding
B) frequent urination
C) itchiness
D) none of the above
E) all of the above

9. It is estimated that 52 million people will be afflicted with this by 2010

A) Progeria
B) osteoporosis
C) Alzheimer’s
D) dementia

10. This is the leading cause of death for both men and women

A) progeria
B) cancer
C) congestive heart failure
D) osteoporosis
E) heart attack