Real Analysis/Applications of Derivatives
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| ←Differentiation | Real Analysis Applications of Derivatives |
Riemann integration→ |
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[edit] Definition
[edit] Higher Order Derivatives
Let
be differentiable
Let f'(x) be differentiable for all
. Then, the derivative of f'(x) is called the second derivative of f and is written as f''(a)
Similarly, we can define the nth-derivative of f, written as f(n)(x)
[edit] Theorem(Rolle's Theorem)
Let ![f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}](http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/3/3/2/332d0f0f6103ad3c4ec22d3af5b36e7c.png)
Let f be continuous on (a,b) and differentiable on [a,b]
Let f(a) = f(b)
Then, there exists
such that f'(c) = 0
[edit] Proof
If f(x) is constant, then f'(x) = 0 ![\forall x\in [a,b]](http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/4/7/f/47fea3d128e51bb753b9466d3aeb8368.png)
Hence, let f be non-constant
Let
such that
(this is possible due to the Minimum-maximum theorem)
Without loss of generality, we can assume that f(c) > f(a)
Assume if possible f'(c) > 0. Thus,
and hence, there exists
such that f(x1) > f(c) contradicting the fact that f(c) is a maximum.
Similarly, we can show that the assumption f'(c) < 0 leads to a contradiction</math>. Thus, f'(c) = 0
Rolle's theorem can be generalized as follows:
[edit] Theorem(Mean Value Theorem)
If f(x) and g(x) are differentiable on [a,b] (without both having infinite derivatives at the same point) then there exists c within [a,b] such that
.
[edit] Proof
Define the function
as
h(x) = f(x)(g(b) − g(a)) − g(x)(f(b) − f(a))
Obviously, this function satisfies h(a) = h(b), and by Rolle's theorem, there is a c within [a,b] such that h'(c) = 0.
[edit] Theorem(Taylor's Theorem)
Let ![f:[a,x]\to\mathbb{R}](http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/6/2/3/62358911ba4c001c5cc694d736929152.png)
Let f(n − 1) be differentiable on [a,x]
Then, there exists
such that

[edit] Proof
For the proof, we use the technique known as "Telescopic Sum"
Consider the function
, given by,
, where the constant
is chosen so as to satisfy φ(a) = φ(x)
By Rolle's theorem, we have that there exists
such that φ'(c) = 0
Expanding, we have (be careful while applying the product rule!)
0 = φ'(c)
![=f'(c)+\left[ \tfrac{(x-c)f''(c)}{1!}-f'(c)\right] +\left[ \tfrac{(x-c)^2f'''(c)}{2!}-\tfrac{(x-c)f''(c)}{1!}\right] +\ldots](http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/7/f/4/7f4558898290cc4d859e943b34ff201f.png)
![+\left[ \tfrac{(x-c)^{n-1}f^{(n)}(c)}{(n-1)!}-\tfrac{(x-c)^{n-2}f^{(n-1)}}{(n-2)!}\right]-\tfrac{A(x-c)^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}](http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/b/1/b/b1b8d032bbe7b6662788d6cc0dacfccb.png)
Which can be rearranged to give the telescopic sum:
![\left[ f'(c)-f'(c)\right] + \left[ \tfrac{(x-c)f''(c)}{1!}-\tfrac{(x-c)f''(c)}{1!}\right] +\ldots+\left[ \tfrac{(x-c)^{n-1}f^{(n)}(c)}{(n-1)!}-\tfrac{A(x-c)^{n-1}}{(n-1)!}\right]=0](http://upload.wikimedia.org/math/2/7/5/275ef6c4244c77641420ce2da760b4b6.png)
That is,
, or A = f(n)(c)
Now, we can easily see that φ(x) = f(x) and that 
but by choice, φ(x) = φ(a) and hence we have:

QED