UMD Analysis Qualifying Exam/Jan08 Real

From Wikibooks, open books for an open world
< UMD Analysis Qualifying Exam
Jump to: navigation, search

Contents

[edit] Problem 1

Suppose that  f \in L^1(R) \!\, is a uniformly continous function. Show that

 \lim_{|x|\rightarrow \infty}f(x)=0 \!\,

[edit] Solution 1

[edit] L^1 implies integral of tail end of function goes to zero

 
\begin{align}
\lim_{M\rightarrow \infty}  \int_{[-M,M]} |f|  &=\int_{\mathbb{R}} |f|\\
\lim_{M\rightarrow \infty}  \int_{[-M,M]} |f|  - \underbrace{\int_{\mathbb{R}} |f|}_{<\infty \mbox { since } f \in L^1} &= 0\\
\int_{\mathbb{R}} |f| - \lim_{M \rightarrow \infty} \int_{[-M,M]} |f| &= 0 \\
\lim_{M \rightarrow \infty} \int_{[-M,M]^c} |f| &= 0
 
\end{align}
\!\,

[edit] Assume Not

Suppose \lim_{|x| \rightarrow \infty} f(x) \neq 0 \!\,. Then,


\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} f(x) \neq 0 \!\,


or


\lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty} f(x) \neq 0 \!\,


Without loss of generality, we can assume the first one, i.e., \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} f(x) \neq 0 \!\, (see remark below to see why this)


Note that \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} f(x) = 0 \!\, can be written as


\forall \epsilon >0 \left[ \exists M >0 \left[ \forall x > M \left[ |f(x)| < \epsilon\right]\right]\right] \!\,


Then, the negation of the above statement gives


\exists \epsilon_0 >0 [ \forall M >0 [ \exists x_0 > M [ |f(x_0)| > \epsilon_0 ]]] \!\,

[edit] Apply Uniform Continuity

Because of the uniform continuity, for the   \epsilon_0           \!\, there is a  \delta(\epsilon_0) >0   \!\, such that

 |f(x_0) - f(x)| < \frac{\epsilon_0}{2}      \!\, ,

whenever  |x-x_0| < \delta (\epsilon_0)    \!\,

Then, if  |x-x_0| < \delta  (\epsilon_0)   \!\, , by Triangle Inequality, we have

 \epsilon_0 < |f(x_0)|< |f(x)|+ |f(x_0)-f(x)| <  |f(x)| +  \frac{\epsilon_0}{2}             \!\,

which implies

 \frac{\epsilon_0}{2} < |f(x)|             \!\, ,

whenever  |x-x_0| < \delta(\epsilon_0)     \!\,

[edit] Construct Contradiction

Let  x_0 \!\, be a number greater than  M\!\,. Note that  \epsilon_0          \!\, and   \delta(\epsilon_0)            \!\, do not depend on   M            \!\, . With this in mind, note that

 \int_{[-M,M]^C} |f|> \int_{x_0}^{x_0+\delta(\epsilon_0)} |f| > \frac{\epsilon_0}{2} \delta(\epsilon_0)      \qquad \mbox{(*)}    \!\,

Then,

 0=\lim_{M \rightarrow \infty}   \int_{[-M,M]^C} |f| \geq  \frac{\epsilon_0}{2} \delta(\epsilon_0)          \!\,

which is a huge contradiction.

Therefore,

 \lim_{|x| \rightarrow \infty} |f(x)| = 0          \!\,


Remark If we choose to work with the assumption that  \lim_{x \rightarrow  -\infty }    |f| \neq 0      \!\, , then in (*), we just need to work with

 \int_{x_0-\delta(\epsilon_0)}^{x_0} |f|             \!\,


instead of the original one

[edit] Solution 1 (Alternate)

By uniform continuity, for all  \epsilon >0 \!\,, there exists \delta(\epsilon)>0\!\, such that for all x_1,x_2 \in R\!\,,


|f(x_1)-f(x_2)| < \epsilon\!\,


if


|x_1-x_2|<\delta(\epsilon)\!\,


Assume for the sake of contradiction there exists  \epsilon_0 >0 \!\, such that for all  M >0 \!\,, there exists  x \in R \!\, such that  |x| > M \!\, and  |f(x)| \geq \epsilon_0 \!\,.


Let  M=1 \!\,, then there exists  x_1 \!\, such that  |x_1| > M \!\, and  |f(x_1)| \geq \epsilon_0 \!\,.


Let  M=|x_1|+ 3 \delta (\epsilon_0) \!\,, then there exists  x_2 \!\, such that  |x_2| > M \!\, and  |f(x_2)| \geq \epsilon_0 \!\,.


Let  M=|x_n|+ 3 \delta (\epsilon_0) \!\,, then there exists  x_{n+1} \!\, such that  |x_{n+1}| > M \!\, and  |f(x_{n+2})| \geq \epsilon_0 \!\,.


So we have \{ I_n \}=\{ (x_n-\delta(\epsilon_0), x_n+\delta(\epsilon_0) \} \!\, with  I_i \cap I_j = \emptyset \!\, if  i \neq j \!\, and  |f(x)| \geq \epsilon_0 \!\, for all  x \in I_n \!\, and for all  n \!\,.


In other words, we are choosing disjoint subintervals of the real line that are of length  2\delta(\epsilon_0) \!\,, centered around each  x_i \!\, for  i=1,2,3, \ldots \!\, , and separated by at least  \delta(\epsilon_0) \!\,.


Hence,


\begin{align}
 \int_R |f(x)|dx &\geq \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \int_{I_n} |f(x)|dx \\
                 &\geq \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \epsilon_0 \int_{I_n} dx \\
                 &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \epsilon_0 \cdot 2 \delta(\epsilon_0) \\
                 &= +\infty 
\end{align}


which contradicts the assumption that  f \in L^1(R) \!\,.


Therefore, for all  \epsilon >0 \!\, there exists  M >0 \!\, such that for all  |x| > M \!\,,


 |f(x)| < \epsilon \!\,


i.e.


 \lim_{|x| \rightarrow \infty} f(x) =0 \!\,

[edit] Problem 3

Suppose f \!\, is absolutely continuous on R \!\,, and  f \in L^1(R) \!\,. Show that if in addition


 \lim_{t \rightarrow 0^+} \int_R \left| \frac{f(x+t)-f(x)}{t}\right| dx = 0 \!\,


then  f=0 \!\,

[edit] Solution 3

By absolute continuity, Fatou's Lemma, and hypothesis we have


\begin{align}
\int_R |f^{\prime}(t)| dt &= \int_R \underset{t \rightarrow 0^+}{\lim \inf} \left| \frac{f(x+t)-f(x)}{t} \right| dx \\
                          &\leq \underset{t \rightarrow 0^+}{\lim \inf} \int_R \left| \frac{f(x+t)-f(x)}{t} \right| dx \\
                          &= 0                 
\end{align}


Hence  f^{\prime}(t)=0 \!\, a.e.


From the fundamental theorem of calculus, for all  x \in R \!\,,


 f(x)-f(0) = \int_0^x f^{\prime}(t) dt =0


i.e.  f(x) \!\, is a constant  c=f(0) \!\, .


Assume for the sake of contradiction that  |c| >0 \!\, , then


 \int_R |f(x)|dx =\int_R |c| dx = \infty \!\, .


which contradicts the hypothesis  f \in L^1(R) \!\,. Hence,


|c|=0 \!\,


i.e.  f(x) = 0 \!\, for all  x \in R \!\,

[edit] Problem 5

Suppose that L^{\frac{1}{2}}(R) \!\, is the set of all equivalence classes of measurable functions for which

 \int_R |f(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx < \infty \!\,

[edit] Problem 5a

Show that it is a metric linear space with the metric


d(f,g)=\int_R |f(x)-g(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx \!\,


where  f,g \in L^{\frac{1}{2}}(R) \!\, .

[edit] Solution 5a

[edit] "One-half" triangle inequality

First, for all a,b \geq 0 \!\, ,


 
\begin{align}
(a+b) &\leq (a+b) + 2 a^{\frac{1}{2}} b^{\frac{1}{2}} \\
      &=    a+ 2 a^{\frac{1}{2}} b^{\frac{1}{2}}+b \\
      &=   (a^{\frac{1}{2}})^2+ 2 a^{\frac{1}{2}} b^{\frac{1}{2}}+(b^{\frac{1}{2}})^2 \\
      &=    (a^{\frac{1}{2}}+b^{\frac{1}{2}})^2
\end{align}


Taking square roots of both sides of the inequality yields,


 (a+b)^{\frac{1}{2}} \leq a^{\frac{1}{2}}+ b^{\frac{1}{2}} \!\,

[edit] L^1/2 is Linear Space

Hence for all f,g \in L^{\frac{1}{2}} \!\,,



\begin{align}
\int_R |af(x)+bg(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}} dx &\leq \int_R ( |a|^{\frac{1}{2}}|f(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}+|b|^{\frac{1}{2}}|g(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}})dx \\
          &=|a|^{\frac{1}{2}}\int_R  |f(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx+|b|^{\frac{1}{2}}\int_R |g(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx \\
          &< \infty
\end{align}


Hence, L^{\frac{1}{2}}\!\, is a linear space.


[edit] L^1/2 is Metric Space

[edit] Non-negativity

(i)\!\, Since  d(f,g) \geq 0 \!\,,


[edit] Zero Distance

 d(f,g)=0 \quad \Longleftrightarrow \quad f=g \,\, a.e. \!\,


[edit] Triangle Inequality

(ii)\!\, Also, for all f,g,h \in L^{\frac{1}{2}}\!\,,



\begin{align}
d(f,g)   &= \int_R |f(x)-g(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}} dx \\
         &= \int_R (|f(x)-h(x)+h(x)-g(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx \\
         &\leq \int_R (|f(x)-h(x)|+|h(x)-g(x)|)^{\frac{1}{2}}dx \\
         &\leq \int_R |f(x)-h(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx + \int_R |h(x)-g(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx \\
         &=d(f,h)+d(h,g)

\end{align}


From (i)\!\, and (ii)\!\, , we conclude that d(f,g) \!\, is a metric space.

[edit] Problem 5b

Show that with this metric L^{\frac{1}{2}}(R) is complete.

[edit] Solution 5b

For a,b,c \geq 0 \!\,,


(a+b+c)^{\frac{1}{2}}\leq a^{\frac{1}{2}}+(b+c)^{\frac{1}{2}} \leq a^{\frac{1}{2}} +b^{\frac{1}{2}} +c^{\frac{1}{2}} \!\,


By induction, we then have for all  a_k \geq 0 \!\, and all k \!\,


 \left( \sum_{k=1}^n a_k \right)^{\frac{1}{2}} \leq \sum_{k=1}^n a_k^{\frac{1}{2}} \!

[edit] Work with Subsequence of Cauchy Sequence

We can equivalently prove completeness by showing that a subsequence of a Cauchy sequence converges.

[edit] Claim

If a subsequence of a Cauchy sequence converges, then the Cauchy sequence converges.

[edit] Proof

[edit] Construct a subsequence

Choose  \{f_n\} \!\, such that for all  n \!\,,


 d(f_n,f_{n+1}) < \frac{1}{2^n}  \!\,


[edit] Setup telescoping sum

Rewrite f_m(x)\!\, as a telescoping sum (successive terms cancel out) i.e.


 f_m(x)=f_1(x)+\underbrace{\sum_{n=1}^{m-1} (f_{n+1}(x)-f_n(x))}_{g_{m-1}(x)} \!\,.


The triangle inequality implies,


 |f_m(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}} \leq |f_1(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}+|g_{m-1}(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}} \!\,


which means the sequence  |f_m(x)|^\frac12 \!\, is always dominated by the sequence on the right hand side of the inequality.


[edit] Define a sequence {g}_m

Let g_m(x)=\sum_{n=1}^m |f_{n+1}(x)-f_n(x) |, then


 g_m(x) \leq g_{m+1}(x) \!\,


and


 g_m(x) \geq 0 \!\, .


In other words, \{g_m\}\!\, is a sequence of increasing, non-negative functions. Note that g \!\,, the limit of \{g_m\} \!\, as m \rightarrow \infty \!\,, exists since \{g_m\} \!\, is increasing. ( g\!\, is either a finite number L \!\, or \infty \!\,.)


Also,



\begin{align}
\int_R |g_m(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx &= \int_R \sum_{n=1}^m |f_{n+1}(x)-f_n(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}} dx \\
                             &= \sum_{n=1}^m \underbrace{\int_R |f_{n+1}(x)-f_n(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}} dx }_{d(f_{n+1},f_n)}\\
                             &\leq \sum_{n=1}^m \frac{1}{2^n} \\
                             &\leq 1 
\end{align}


Hence, for all  m \!\,


\int_R |g_m(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx  \leq 1 \!\,

[edit] Apply Monotone Convergence Theorem

By the Monotone Convergence Theorem,



\begin{align}
\int_R \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} |g_m(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx &= \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \int_R |g_m(x)|^{\frac{1}{2}}dx   \\
                                         &\leq 1 \\
                                         &< \infty 
\end{align}


Hence,


 \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} g_m(x) \in L^{\frac{1}{2}} \!\,


[edit] Apply Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem

From the Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem,


 
\begin{align}
\int_R \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} |f_m|^\frac12  &= \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \int_R |f_m|^{\frac12} \\ 
                                        &\leq \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \int_R |f_1(x)|^{\frac12}+\int_R|g_{m-1}(x)|^{\frac12} \\
 &< \infty
\end{align}


where the last step follows since  f_1, g_{m-1} \in L^{\frac12}  \!\,


Hence,


\lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} f_m \in L^{\frac{1}{2}}  \!\,


i.e.  L^{\frac{1}{2}} \!\, is complete.

Personal tools
Namespaces
Variants
Actions
Navigation
Community
Toolbox
Sister projects
Print/export