UMD Analysis Qualifying Exam/Aug06 Real
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[edit] Problem 1a
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Prove the following version of the Riemann-Lebesque Lemma: Let
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[edit] Solution 1a
Note that
.
Hence we can equivalently show
as 
[edit] Claim
Let
be a step function.
as 
[edit] Proof

[edit] Step functions approximate L^1 functions well
Since
, then ![f \in L^1 [\pi,\pi] \!\,](http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikibooks/en/math/7/b/f/7bfef9d42247ded7536af63a3c1fa214.png)
Hence, given
, there exists
such that

![\begin{align}
\int_{-pi}^\pi f(x) \cos(nx) &= \int_{-pi}^{\pi} ([f(x)-\psi(x)+\psi(x)]\cos(nx))dx \\
&\leq \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} |f(x)-\psi(x)| \cos(nx) + \int_{-pi}^\pi |\psi(x)| \cos(nx) \\
&\leq \epsilon \cdot 2 \pi + \epsilon
\end{align}](http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikibooks/en/math/5/2/f/52f6d73fa3e4d50dc4fd7705fa231787.png)
[edit] Problem 1a
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Let
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as
denotes a positive integer. You may use any of a variety of techniques, but you cannot simply cite another version of the Riemann-Lebesque Lemma.
be an increasing sequence of positive integers. Show that
has measure 0.